I'm sorry, I don't understand?
Mary was immaculately conceived, and remained sinless her whole life. She was assumed bodily into heaven. Such is the Catholic doctrine, and was also Luther's doctrine.
I am just wondering what the explanation for her death would be. I have never heard it given.
That she went "the way of all flesh" is true: according to Tradition she was assumed bodily into heaven after her death, not while still living (like Enoch, Elijah or the resurrected Jesus were). But "the way of all flesh" was that "way" only because of the sin of Adam, the punishment of which brought death into the world not just for man, but for all of the animals and plants too (they too were immortal prior to The Fall, according to Genesis). But Mary was exempted from the sin of Adam. She did not carry original sin.
Was she condemned by God to die anyway, WITHOUT sin?
Was the wages of her sinlessness death anyway?
WHY?
There has to be a theological explanation for this.
But I have never heard it given.
Even Christ Died yet he was sinless.
Do you have a reference for Luther on that last part, about the bodily assumption of Mary?