[frog_jerk_2004]

UNTIL doesn't necessarily imply anything. You only think it does I wonder what the word UNTIL was translated from and what its meaning was? Can anyone clear that up?

On another note, if a woman has one male child isn't it still her first born child, even though she has no others?

The Scriptures state that Joseph kept her a virgin until she gave birth at which point they consummated their marriage and had sons and daughters as evidenced by the mention of Jesus' brothers and sisters in the Bible -- Where is this in the Bible?

Jesus is a type of the Ark of the Covenant. To associate Mary with the Ark is take Glory away from Christ Jesus and to give it to Mary.

Jesus is the Word of God, Mary carried Jesus in her womb, Mary is the Ark of the Word.

Also, Mary is not a type of Eve, for Eve is a type of the Church

Mary is the new Eve, whereas Eve said "No" to God, Mary said "Yes" to God.

[JohnnyM]

If Mary is the new Eve, then that would mean she is the bride of the New Adam, Jesus. But not even you guys believe that. Your typology makes no sense if she is new Eve. How does Mary fulfill any of the typology of Eve?

JM

[JohnnyM]

"UNTIL doesn't necessarily imply anything"

It implies an event happening in the future. So if the Word says that Joseph kept Mary a virgin UNTIL she gave birth, that would imply that Mary lost her virginity sometime after the birth of Jesus. The Word of God does not use Words flippantly. For the Bible could have clearly said that Mary remained a virgin or that Joseph never "knew" her. Or a host of different things to that effect. But the Holy Spirit in His wisdom chose to use those words. Now could you show me Scripture where Mary was "Immaculately" conceived???

JM