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To: SoothingDave
And since the Bible nowhere resolves this ambiguity, by for instance calling James a son of Mary, why do you assume this one usage?

Oh but it does, many times.

Matthew 27:56 Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee's children.

Mark 15:40 There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome;

Luke 24:10 It was Mary Magdalene and Joanna, and Mary the mother of James, and other women that were with them, which told these things unto the apostles.

Three times should be enough.

JH : )

319 posted on 09/23/2004 10:09:10 AM PDT by JHavard
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To: JHavard
Oh but it does, many times.

That's a different Mary. You think so little of the Mother of the Lord that you think she would be referred to in a list 1) not in the first place listed and 2) as something other than "Mary the Mother of the Lord."

It's preposterous. And on this your argument hangs. That the Mother of Jesus is referred to as "The Mother of James and Joses"

Why not share your other thesis point, the one where she is referred to as "the other Mary"?

SD

320 posted on 09/23/2004 10:37:33 AM PDT by SoothingDave
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