Scripture always clarifies a name when the person is a major player.
How did you know that Lot wasn't Abraham’s sibling brother?
Because scripture clarified it in Genesis 11:31 And Terah took Abram his son, and Lot the son of Haran his son's son, and Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram's wife; and they went forth with them from Ur of the Chaldees, to go into the land of Canaan; and they came unto Haran, and dwelt there.
There is no doubt left what their relationship was.
However if you don't read Matthew and Mark literally, concerning Jesus brothers, you end up in lala-land, requiring endless speculations just to support some tradition you have no idea where it even started.
JH :(
Scripture always clarifies a name when the person is a major player.
I guess then any useage that isn't "clarified" isn't a "major player."
You have sidestepped the point. The word "brother" in this context among the semitic peoples had a broader meaning than the word in general use in English. We need more information upon hearing the word "brother" than to automatically assume that they are co-uteral siblings. Or to assume that they are not.
So there is absolutely no reason to suspect that the Brothers of the Lord are co-uteral siblings. We know the word has a broader meaning. And we know that the exact meaning needs to be clarified in order for the ambiguity to be resolved.
And since the Bible nowhere resolves this ambiguity, by for instance calling James a son of Mary, why do you assume this one usage?
SD
Once again, and back to my original question, when you say to read it "literally" don't you really mean to assign it the modern English meaning of the word?
SD