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To: HarleyD
Only in Matt 1:25 would you be interpreting “until” in the fashion you’ve mentioned.

Not true. A couple of examples:

    Matt 28:15 So they took the money and did as they were instructed; and this saying is commonly reported among the Jews until this day. But not after the day this verse was written?

    Acts 23:1 Then Paul, looking earnestly at the council, said, "Men [and] brethren, I have lived in all good conscience before God until this day." But not after?

And there are others. "Until" does not necessarily stipulate what happened afterward.
21 posted on 09/20/2004 2:06:15 PM PDT by Titanites
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To: Titanites; HarleyD

2 Kings 6: 23-
"Therefore Michol the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death."

Do you propose that after the day of her death Michol began having children?


22 posted on 09/20/2004 4:36:15 PM PDT by bonaventura
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To: Titanites
Your verse from Matt 28:15 using "until" is a poor translation and does not use the same Greek word. Here are some other translations including the Catholic Douay-Rheims:

Mat 28:15 So they taking the money, did as they were taught: and this word was spread abroad among the Jews even unto this day. (DR)

Mat 28:15 And they took the money and did as they had been instructed; and this story was widely spread among the Jews, and is to this day. (NASB)

Act 23:1 is also a different word but it doesn't matter. Paul was saying he lived his life with a good conscience "up until that day" meaning, of course, something changed.

27 posted on 09/20/2004 5:27:16 PM PDT by HarleyD
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