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To: Havoc
The Trade language of the world was Greek

A factual error. The trade language of the world was NOT Greek. GReek had decayed to only Anatolia. This was the Roman era, the Greeks had been conquered. The language of commerce in the area of Israel-Syria-Jordan down to Egypt was Aramaic.
Christ MAY have known Greek (can't prove it one way or the other), but the odds are pretty low -- why would he need it? He would know the scriptural language of Hebrew, he would know the common language of Aramaic, he may have known Latin. But why on earth would he have wanted to know Greek??? The Sadduccees may have known Greek because greek philosophy influenced them, but Christ supported Pharisee thought more (they did believe in an after-life unlike the Sadduccees)
607 posted on 02/01/2004 2:52:40 AM PST by Cronos (W2004!)
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To: Cronos
A factual error - no. The reason that Koine Greek was used in Writing the New testament was primarily attributed to the fact that Koine Greek was the trade language of the time and especially in the regions for which the letters were written. This is why your side so regularly invokes the LXX in discussion. Whatever argument it takes for the moment - eh. Truthful or not...
655 posted on 02/01/2004 12:49:51 PM PST by Havoc ("Alright; but, that only counts as one..")
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