[Claud]

Actually, the existence of a Hebrew/Aramaic original for Matthew does not affect the main argument about Petros being a Greek translation of an Aramaic name. We have the infallible word of Scripture testifying specifically that Peter's name was given in Aramaic, whence it was translated into Greek. To wit:

John 1:42: "And Jesus looking upon him, said: Thou art Simon the son of Jona. Thou shalt be called Cephas, which is interpreted Peter."

That Greek word "interpreted" = "ermeneuetai" and it just as easily could be rendered "to translate." Petros is a translation of the name that Christ gave to Peter: "Kephas".

[Havoc]

You're right. And I don't see anyone contesting that, so I'm not sure of the point you think you're making. petros and petra are two states of being that are inequalities. Cephas or Kephas does directly translate to petros - not to Petra. Thus the difference in the words. Thus the difference in the sentence structure which you'll note properly modifies the greek gender of the two words, etc.

[dsc]

"That Greek word "interpreted" = "ermeneuetai" and it just as easily could be rendered "to translate." Petros is a translation of the name that Christ gave to Peter: "Kephas".

Thank you. I saw that in the Douay a couple of days ago, but it didn't register properly.

So, what is the proper English rendering of Kephas?