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So he is just going overboard in driving home the "Jesus really was Incarnated" point and it overflows into Eucharistic expression? Why would he point out, to make the case for Jesus being really really real flesh, a symbolic expression of Jesus' body in the Eucharist? It doesn't make sense.

I have a better, still unanswered question. If Jesus dwells in each Christian. And given he was not speaking literally in the last supper; why would it be necessary for him to be present in the Bread and wine for people to experience him when it's only meant for true Christians and True Christians experience him every living moment within them? (Mr Trebek, music please).

I guess I don't get credit since it took more than 30 sec?
The answer is simple. Understand the Passover that Christ was celebrating in the last supper. You're first-born was not saved merely by the family's faith...nor by the sacrifice of an unblemished lamb (Christ)... nor by the spreading of His blood to cover the doorposts (our Sin)... You had to eat the lamb (Lamb)
It was bread and wine after the order of Melchizedek... and to end the necessity of a bloody sacrifice.

why would it be necessary for him to be present in the Bread and wine for people to experience him when it's only meant for true Christians and True Christians experience him every living moment within them?

Easy, John 6:56-57. Christ isn't in you... sorry.