But that's exactly what the law requires.
I guess what I’m suggesting is that any judge should be able to find that the law is unconstitutional on its face.
Did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 actually dictate that districts must be drawn to maximize the likelihood of black candidates winning? I haven’t looked at the text of the law but there weren’t a lot of black Congressional candidates back then...did Congress really think in those terms or did judges just find that right later?