Did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 actually dictate that districts must be drawn to maximize the likelihood of black candidates winning? I haven’t looked at the text of the law but there weren’t a lot of black Congressional candidates back then...did Congress really think in those terms or did judges just find that right later?
Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation."
This amendment, as written, does nothing to speak about Congressional representation, district construction, or the like. It only guarantees that you have a right to cast a vote.
Last time I checked, if your constituency is out-numbered in an election setting by a 3-to-1 margin, you lose... every single time. Alabama Democrats should therefore be happy that they've been granted 1 Congressional district written in for them.
The argument by the Alabama legislature, therefore, should be that their maps are all about political purposes, not racial purposes. Politicial divisions are allowed... and they can certainly cite the districts of other (Blue) states to back that up.
Furthermore, the drawing of any district to favor a particular group based on race -- which is what this judge is demanding -- runs directly afoul of the very same 15th amendment he's allegedly upholding in this ruling.