[sphinx]

Why begin and end with WWII? Germany can always recover its liabilities for WWII damages by suing France, which has invaded Germany far more times (ore-unification) than Germany has invaded France. And aren’t the French still owed reparations for Caesar’s conquest?

[BroJoeK]

sphinx: "Germany can always recover its liabilities for WWII damages by suing France, which has invaded Germany far more times (ore-unification) than Germany has invaded France."

What, are we going back to the 30-Years War, or Napoleon?

Since 1870, Germany launched three invasions of France, France invaded Germany zero times.
(Question: was Saarbrucken part of Germany in 1870?
Are you sure?)

sphinx: "And aren’t the French still owed reparations for Caesar’s conquest?"

Oh, Well...
Then Gauls owe reparations to Romans for their invasion in 390 BC.

;-)

[Cronos]

Germany can always recover its liabilities for WWII damages by suing France, which has invaded Germany far more times (ore-unification) than Germany has invaded France. -- Germany did not exist before 1870. France did not invade Germany until 1945.

And aren’t the French still owed reparations for Caesar’s conquest? the French of today are descendents of Caesars colonialists + the local Gauls, Acquitani and Belgae + some Frankish and Visigothic blood + increasingly genes from all over the world.