Posted on 06/14/2014 8:33:41 PM PDT by 2ndDivisionVet
When you look at world history, and especially biblical history, you will find that polygamy has been an accepted and honorable way of life. Many beloved prophets of the Old Testament were polygamists, and Abraham was a friend of God, all while having many wives. Polygamy was once a lifestyle accepted by all.
For Christians of 2000 years ago, polygamy was stopped by the Roman empire.
Paul, in his letter to the church in Rome, said, “A bishop should be the husband of one wife.” He was simply telling them to obey the law of the land. Roman law is alive and well today in America, and we all know what happened to the Roman Empire.
It’s very unfortunate what has happened in Colorado City, Ariz., and in other states. It has given polygamy a terrible name and image....
(Excerpt) Read more at lasvegassun.com ...
I’ve put together a whole website showing this - I won’t repeat all that here, but it is easily available for your review.
The interesting point, I think, is that the burden of proof is on you. The Bible clearly permits, regulates, commands, and endorses polygyny. If it is wrong, you have to be able to show it, otherwise we have to use what we have as our guide.
I am not trying to explain Old Testament practices. That wasn’t the original point to which I replied with this. The original point was you couldn’t sin without violating a command of God, I was merely proving that you could.
I’m glad we agree on this point.
Then, back to my point, you are saying the Bible contains a lie.
There may be another explanation, though I am not going to tell you I have studied this with the intent it takes to speak confidently on it. The word translated “sinned” can also mean “done wrong”. I would suggest this goes back to my original point, applying the verse from James. He didn’t violate a command of God, therefore, the sin was that David did something he knew he should have done differently, which would correspond to sin equaling doing something you know is wrong, whether or not you violated a command of God.
I am not saying David didn’t sin. I am saying David didn’t violate a command of God in all the days of his life — except in the matter of Uriah the Hittite. My point is not that David was sinless, it was that David didn’t violate a command of God, therefore, David with his polygynous lifestyle was not violating a command of God.
Can God sin? Absolutely not! If not, then what reason do you apply to God’s law commanding a man to take on his deceased brother’s wife, even if he is already married? That is commanding polygyny. It has nothing to do with hardness of heart, it has to do with a way The Lord planned for someone to be taken care of. It was His plan. When did that plan change? I have not seen any scripture saying it has.
Not in the way you are spinning it, but yes; the bible DOES contains lies.
Well, in the last 33 years I have read the Bible perhaps a 100 times or more, studied it diligently, read entire sets of biblcal commentaries (OT & NT), have a BA in Biblical Studies, an MA in Christian Counseling, and have spent years on my face before God seeking after His will, purpose, and plan. You may also wish to entertain some thoughts on Paul’s advice to Timothy & Titus regarding qualifications for the man of God being that of the “husband of ONE WIFE,” (1 Timothy 3:2; Titus 1:6). Combined with the “whole counsel of God,” this qualification would apply to all who “name the name of Christ.” God’s plan for man was one husband, and one wife.
I never suggested you haven’t studied the Bible, nor have I called into question your sincerity in seeking God, but I have studied this topic in great detail, including the scriptures you have referenced. I also said you might prove me wrong, but saying you have spent great time in the Word and seeking God’s will doesn’t mean you have studied a topic in great depth. I would challenge you to do so with this topic and then see if your response is the same.
Regarding the scriptures you shared, there is some uncertainty on “one wife” because of the word mia, which can also mean “a wife” which would in contrast suggest marriage was a requirement, but not marriage to only one.
I am not spinning anything. Let me ask it plainly, do you believe 1 Kings 15:5 is a lie? If so, how do you trust anything in the Bible?
James 4:17 doesn’t prove you can sin without violating a command? It sure seems that it does to me.
For David had done what was right in the eyes of the LORD and had not failed to keep any of the LORD's commands all the days of his life--except in the case of Uriah the Hittite.
It sure DISAGREES with OTHER things written in the bible.
How do YOU explain that?
That's because YOU are equating 'right thing' to NOT being a command.James 4:17
Therefore, to one who knows the right thing to do and does not do it, to him it is sin.
Elsie, I have already explained this. Please go back and read the previous posts.
Elsie, how would you define sin?
Defacto polygamy is alive and well in the urban ghettos. How’s that working out.
Any “uncertainty” is on man’s own selfish desire, and the demand to fulfill his lusts. When you “know in whom you have believed,” and have more than mere religion, having put on the mind of Christ, then you will understand. The only way to “put on the mind of Christ,” is to bathe your mind in the word of Go that it might be transformed to God’s way of thinking.
Nice.
To make a statement that I am “religious” and that I haven’t “put on the mind of Christ” is presumptuous at best.
Your answer indicates to me that you didn’t go study this out. That’s okay, but it does seem you are a serious student of the Word. If so, you are doing yourself a disservice to speak so confidently on an issue you haven’t taken the time to understand.
When I used the word “uncertainty”, it certainly wasn’t to indicate I was uncertain, it was to encourage you to go look at the original language and see for yourself. I have no doubt. I have put the time and effort in to thoroughly understand what the word of God says on this issue.
There is a definite difference in “mia” and “heis”, and it is not without reason that mia was used.
Furthermore, look at 1 Corninthians 7:2, it is highly unlikely that Paul would have chosen to use different words for “own” within the same sentence without reason.
Play the word game all you like my friend, but God is not into games, and will have the last word on those those who seek to justify sin and lusts. When you do your homework, you will discover those who launched out beyonds the bounds of one wife in biblical times experienced nothing but trouble as a result. Twisting words, and wrangling the Scriptures in order to justify SIN does not produce a “sweet smelliing,” but rather putrid smell in the nostrils of God, and may compel Him to spew folks out of HIs mouth, who dare to do so.
If I read the words of the Bible and translate them accurately, then that equals word games? I think not.
I have done my homework, evangmlw, you can see it all you wish at www.biblicalpolygyny.com, though I am sure perusing the site is not high on your list. I can back up everything I say with scripture, and I have no second-guesses about the validity of my statements.
Your statements already have shown me that you haven’t spent the time researching it, therefore, I don’t feel there is anything left to discuss. If you are willing to argue something without having researched it adequately, we are both wasting our time.
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