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To: OneVike
“..no problem with the original KJV. As long ..”

Translations:

I do not understand the virile distaste (hate may be too strong) for KJV.
I am not including you in that statement

Being it was the only English translation that that reigned for 300+ years. My wonder is why God would allow it if it was bad.

Outside the old English (archaic) words , with the exception of the ASV 1901, I found modern translation as not accurate in at least one or two critical verses. (this to me, it may not bother anyone else) The Greek shows these word uses, but newer translation change or omit some words; Does it mean the same? to me, no, but to my (estranged) Greek scholar buddy it does.

But I am Bias.

139 posted on 04/30/2013 7:24:50 AM PDT by kimtom (USA ; Freedom is not Free)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 110 | View Replies ]


To: kimtom

I understand the biasness, because we all succumb to it in our growth.

as for the KJV, god allowed it because men’s education was limited, and most were not astute enough to know. It was better to have an version, even if flawed, to be used during the time from 1500 to 1900’s, because the West was being populated by those opposed to the false teachings of Catholicism.

The errors were not so egregious as to cause one to lose their salvation, but it was more than adequate to guide a growing nation that was slowly getting more and more educated in their knowledge.

Now, most differences many see between the KJV and others that are different than the Vulgate errors transferred have to do with which Greek texts were used. Without getting too involved, it has to do with a similar problem that happened when the split happened between Eastern and Western. Different argument, but similar type of disagreement over ancient textual translations from Hebrew to Greek to either Arabic Eastern readers and Latin for Western readers.

It all depends on what you are either comfortable with or partial to. It is much more indepth than that, but I think you get my gist.

As for me, I have a problem with the Alexandrian texts because they had a lot of Gnosticism ebbing into their Theological schools at the time the texts date back to.

Similar to the way Greek humanism creeped into Catholicism during the late Dark Ages. I guess we can also say that the catholic church started pushing the Apocrypha in a way to combat the many good changes the minds of the masses were being opened up to during the reformation.

Tell your Greek Scholar I said Hi. :>)


142 posted on 04/30/2013 12:00:06 PM PDT by OneVike (I'm just a Christian waiting to go home)
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