I understand the biasness, because we all succumb to it in our growth.
as for the KJV, god allowed it because men’s education was limited, and most were not astute enough to know. It was better to have an version, even if flawed, to be used during the time from 1500 to 1900’s, because the West was being populated by those opposed to the false teachings of Catholicism.
The errors were not so egregious as to cause one to lose their salvation, but it was more than adequate to guide a growing nation that was slowly getting more and more educated in their knowledge.
Now, most differences many see between the KJV and others that are different than the Vulgate errors transferred have to do with which Greek texts were used. Without getting too involved, it has to do with a similar problem that happened when the split happened between Eastern and Western. Different argument, but similar type of disagreement over ancient textual translations from Hebrew to Greek to either Arabic Eastern readers and Latin for Western readers.
It all depends on what you are either comfortable with or partial to. It is much more indepth than that, but I think you get my gist.
As for me, I have a problem with the Alexandrian texts because they had a lot of Gnosticism ebbing into their Theological schools at the time the texts date back to.
Similar to the way Greek humanism creeped into Catholicism during the late Dark Ages. I guess we can also say that the catholic church started pushing the Apocrypha in a way to combat the many good changes the minds of the masses were being opened up to during the reformation.
Tell your Greek Scholar I said Hi. :>)
“..It all depends on what you are either comfortable ...”
Thanks!