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To: PhatHead
What do you think are the odds of getting pregnant from a single act of consensual intercourse?

Somewhat greater than the odds of getting pregnant from being raped.

Don't answer - it doesn't matter.

"Anderson, it doesn't matter anyway you slice it. "


202 posted on 08/25/2012 12:09:57 PM PDT by UCANSEE2 (RED NECK KUNG FU by Corn Fuschas)
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To: UCANSEE2

The DWS pic is funny - thanks for the laugh. You still don’t get it, though. Nobody asked him about the frequency of pregnancy resulting from rape. His candidacy is in trouble because he couldn’t answer a pretty easy question without going off the rails.

You seem to have a principled view on abortion. I’d think it would bother you that his principles seem to be based upon the frequency of those pregnancies, rather than moral value of the lives in question. Why should it matter how common it is?


254 posted on 08/25/2012 1:35:33 PM PDT by PhatHead
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To: UCANSEE2

The “morning-after pill” has 2 mechanisms to prevent pregnancy: suppress ovulation or alter the uterine lining so it will not allow the conceived child to implant. The former is contraception; the latter is abortion. The contraceptive part only applies if the woman hasn’t ovulated by the time she is raped. That’s about half of the times when a pregnancy could occur from rape.

If fight-or-flight chemicals in the body were able to suppress ovulation for a day or two, that would be the same contraceptive effect as the morning-after-pill, which is so touted as necessary by the pro-aborts.

Some studies have shown that extreme stress affects implantation.

If adrenaline has a natural effect on implantation, then the stress of violent rape could well be just as effective as the “morning-after pill” - which actually has a very poor effectiveness rate, when you consider that only a few days out of the month are fertile. If 1/10th of the month is fertile (3 days out of 30) and 10% of the people who use the morning-after pill get pregnant, that would mean it had roughly a 100% failure rate (if nobody kept track of whether the days were fertile or not but just went with general numbers - and as far as I could tell from the morning-after pill numbers when I looked at them a long time ago, they didn’t distinguish whether the days were fertile or not). Only half of those times would involve the CONTRACEPTIVE effect rather than the abortive effect, so if you had 5% pregnancy rate that could reflect 100% failure of the contraceptive effect.

Do the fight-or-flight chemicals have these effects? I don’t know. Chemicals can be very powerful.

I wonder what the pregnancy rate is for forcible rape, compared with the pregnancy rate following the use of the morning-after pill.

Could put a whole different perspective on this whole thing.


259 posted on 08/25/2012 1:49:17 PM PDT by butterdezillion
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