There is as much evidence for obambi being a slaver, as any liberal has for claiming someone had white slave owners or traders ancestry in the South. You know, the “generic” Southerners were ALL slave owners. Course that’s true... yup.
Since we have no real paternity proof for obambi, at least none he will provide with the same level of provenance required for obtaining a US passport- none of this matters.
It is provable that he is one major moronic incompetent who cannot speak on his own two feet, a puppet tool with a stupidly fixed marxist tyrannical goal of redistributed wealth and a totalitarian state. Got lots of evidence for that.
The Poles have a good reason to be upset with this “slip”, inasmuch as two generations- the cream of their military and civilian leadership was murdered by Stalin, and their population slaughtered by the Nazis and the Soviets in tandem. The “slip” is one which the communists used against Poles— that they were accomplices to the Nazis. The extreme need of a teleprompter is one more poor attempt at consistency in the dialectic from obama’s marxist managers. It wasn’t a “slip” it was written that way.
More than a little tiring discussing how many angels can stand on the head of a pin... with the exact precision and certainty of academia which has gotten very little correct, including who this nightmare of a president is.
Correct. I'm a non-Pole staying in Poland and have an indulgence for history. The first "polish" pogrom against Jewry was in Tsarist controlled polish territories in the late 1800s. Remember that until 1793 the Poles were an independent nation (ok, from 1700 under the Saxon house they were puppets of the Tsars) and after that Poland was partitioned thrice and more or less didn't exist for the 1800s.
The Tsarist part gave Moscow it's huge rise in Jewry (in the late middle-ages the vast majority of Jews in the world lived and were equals in the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth). The Tsars used pogroms as a political weapon.
Anyway, I digress -- to your point, anti-semitism is not in Polish history anywhere like other European nations -- I suspect it was due to three reasons: 1. the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth was a mixture of 4 peoples: Poles, Lithuanians, Ruthenians (Ukrainians, Bialorussians) and Jews, with Armenians and Saxons and Tartars tossed into the mix, so a multi-cultural and multi-faith state where differences were expected
and 2. The population of Jews in Poland before WWII was about 20% -- some towns like Pinsk were 90% Jews, Warsaw and Krakow were 40% Jewish. Your neighbor was a Jew, your friend, your shopkeeper etc. -- and these were highly integrated into Polish society. Prejudice didn't gain ground
and 3. The man who recreated Poland -- Marshal Josef Piłsudski was of a Polonized Lithuanian family whose ancestry was in the East, Vilnius. For him Poland was not a mono-ethnic state but one like the P-L commonwealth: where different ethnicities were together, with one purpose (as an aside, during the P-L-C you had Germanics like Copernicus who considered himself a citizen of the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth and fought against the Teutonic knights' rule) -- Piłsudski won against the opposing camp (Dmowski) who wanted a mono-ethnic state.