Okay, so does this mean that two folks who agree to a contract or otehr instrument that happens to be in line w/shariah law are bound by it (just as folks who enter in to an agreement to follow catholic or protestant or otehr agreements) or does it mean that a muslim can force another person into a contract etc that must be based on shariah?
If the former, then so what, two parties agreed to abide by some non-secular code, if the later- uh oh, big time problem. Becasue, if that is the case, then I can expect Christian principle to be applied to anyone I contract with, not just the common law. Would that fly? (If someone asks for your shirt, give them your cloak as well).
Advice to OK and all other states: Pass legislation that clearly prevents any other form of law/code from applying unilaterally to any other party(ies), when all else is considered, the highest law of the land is the one passed by consent of the people (via the states legislatures) and automatically applies if there is any dissent to a legal consideration.
Best;
It would have been wise for the argument to have been framed around your advice. Well said.