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To: Godzilla
I have a genuine question here. You say - Baptism for the dead is mentioned as a practice of those who were NOT Christians by Paul.

What I see is Paul listing several proofs of the Resurrection existing and being universal, and includes the practice of baptism for the dead as an example. Why would Paul use that as an example if it was a false practice?

Appreciate your thoughts on this.

233 posted on 12/04/2011 7:58:29 PM PST by T. P. Pole
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To: T. P. Pole
You say - Baptism for the dead is mentioned as a practice of those who were NOT Christians by Paul.

What I see is Paul listing several proofs of the Resurrection existing and being universal, and includes the practice of baptism for the dead as an example.

 

 

 

What the text records:

 

1 Corinthians 15:29-58 (NIV)

29 Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them? 30 And as for us, why do we endanger ourselves every hour? 31 I face death every day—yes, just as surely as I boast about you in Christ Jesus our Lord. 32 If I fought wild beasts in Ephesus with no more than human hopes, what have I gained? If the dead are not raised,

“Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die.”

33 Do not be misled: “Bad company corrupts good character.”  34 Come back to your senses as you ought, and stop sinning; for there are some who are ignorant of God—I say this to your shame.


306 posted on 12/05/2011 9:10:15 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going)
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To: T. P. Pole

MORMONism says: Baptism for the dead is what we do BECAUSE the Bible has been corrupted.

Christianity says: Baptism for the dead is what folks OTHER than Christians do, because they claim the Bible has been corrupted; with no proof.


309 posted on 12/05/2011 9:12:39 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going)
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To: T. P. Pole
I have a genuine question here. You say - Baptism for the dead is mentioned as a practice of those who were NOT Christians by Paul. What I see is Paul listing several proofs of the Resurrection existing and being universal, and includes the practice of baptism for the dead as an example. Why would Paul use that as an example if it was a false practice? Appreciate your thoughts on this.

Were you to pay closer attention to the context, Paul repeatedly uses words like "us", "we", etc in an INCLUSIVE manner. That is until vs 29 where an exclusive term "THEY" is used twice. It is clear that Paul is referencing someone OTHER than the Christians at Corinth. If the rite was a legitimate part of apostolic teaching, we might have expected the apostle to say “what shall you do . . .” or “what shall we do . . .”

Second, there is absolutely no TEACHING in the verse, it is only MENTIONED.

Paul, within a greater context was arguing against those who said there was no resurrection. These false teachers are inconsistent: they deny the resurrection, yet engage in a practice — baptism for the dead — which is based on the hope of resurrection.

Ironically, the Encyclopedia of Mormonism espouses much the same interpretation of the verse: “... Paul clearly refers to a distinct group within the Church, a group that he accuses of inconsistency between ritual and doctrine.” Again, this is a group OUTSIDE of orthodoxy of Christianity so much as not to be considered Christian - "they". Paul associates the practice with false teachers and teachings.

310 posted on 12/05/2011 9:13:44 AM PST by Godzilla (3/7/77)
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