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To: nathanbedford
This would mean that instead of 5.7% difference there is a 1% difference and the poll as therefore oversampled by 4.7%.

As covered earlier this poll is using a 7.6% differential, not a 5.7. And the 1% difference is from the Gallup poll, based on random selection. So one poll using another poll's statistics for weighting purposes would be a risky proposition.

67 posted on 09/10/2008 8:21:35 AM PDT by impeachedrapist (On Free Republic PBD [political bipolar disorder] rules!)
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To: impeachedrapist
I was misled by your reference to the gap being 5.7%. If the gap is as calculated by Rasmussen to be 7.6% and the gap as calculated by Gallup is 1% then the potential error is all the more to McCain's favor, correct?

Wouldn't that mean that 6.6% more Democrats were sampled by Rasmussen than the new reality supplied by Gallup requires? Would not one expect 80% plus of these 6.6% to support McCain? I do not understand why the differences in methodology between Rasmussen and Gallup have to do with establishing the correct ratio of Republicans and Democrats.

Could you kindly explain?


69 posted on 09/10/2008 8:45:59 AM PDT by nathanbedford ("Attack, repeat attack!" Bull Halsey)
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