Posted on 08/05/2008 4:41:40 AM PDT by Neville72
Evenhandedness would be served. GOP people with a "personal life aren't exempt. Ask yourself what the media would do if they had juicy stories about any of the following private citizens:
Gingrich, Romney, Huckabee, Karl Rove, Rumsfeld.
Since Justice Wilson believed it to be binding, I do not have to 'consider' anything of the sort. Too many people wish to contort the meaning and purpose of the Law by using the 'it's just a philosophical idea' type argument.
IMHO, by doing so, you desecrate the entire purpose and intent of the Constitution, which was to protect the sovereignty of the People.
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It was quite clear that real crimes had been committed by the Nazis, althoug there was no established body of international law that actually codified those crimes. In that case, the general sense of "criminal activity" would have been justified by the "law of nations."
True, but the fact that nothing was 'codified' made no difference, precisely because the Law of Nations was already IN operation.
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That's a false assertion.
Telling me I'm wrong doesn't prove anything anymore than the straw-man argument concerning the Nuremburg trials did.
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Congress can pass legislation till the cows come home, but they were not given the authority to create or define, merely to REGULATE.
A very definite but distinctive difference.
I applaud any beating the press gives Edwards over his affair.
It’s rich in irony that he got busted at the Beverly Hills Hilton hours after he was a featured speaker at a homeless conference in LA.
Two Americas alright. One for hypocrite Johnny and his pals and one for the rest of us.
Pinging myself for later read.
Binding in what sense ... especially considering that the phrase was written in 1789? What objective body of legislation are we talking about? I would certainly agree that the "law of nations" could be binding in a moral sense; however, the concensus at the time the clause was written, was that the term was sufficiently vague as to authorize Congress to define its terms, prior to specifying punishments for violation. In other words, "morally binding" was (and still should be) considered insufficient grounds for legal action. The rule of law requires that the legal basis for jurisprudence be fixed in the sense of being written, rather than felt. Clearly the "law of nations" is not that sort of law.
I don't use "philosophical idea" as a means of denigrating the concept of "the law of nations" -- the term acknowledges the important idea that there are universal concepts of right and wrong, after all.
However, it would be silly to make the entire Constitution generally subject to that particular sub-clause (and perhaps to go far beyond its intended context), especially since "the law of nations" is so vague as to require definition by Congress. The whole point of a written Constitution, after all, is to preclude the possibility Congress changing the rules based on vague principles.
True, but the fact that nothing was 'codified' made no difference, precisely because the Law of Nations was already IN operation.
Hm. So basically you're agreeing with my point. That the "law of nations" was "In operation" is to acknowledge the generally-agreed principle that Genocide is Wrong. However, ours is a society based upon the rule of law -- written law -- and you agree that there were no written laws at the time governing our authority to prosecute the Nazis for committing genocide. Here, in a nutshell, is the sort of situation that led to the Constitutional authorization for Congress to define the crimes committed (i.e., codify them into written law) in accordance with the philosophical precepts that form the "law of nations," so that the U.S. had a firm, "rule of law" basis on which to prosecute the Nazi war criminals.
Telling me I'm wrong doesn't prove anything anymore than the straw-man argument concerning the Nuremburg trials did.
Uh... I provided a direct cite showing that you were wrong in your assertion that Congress had no power to legally define the terms of citizenship. I don't see how that has anything to do with the Nuremburg trials....
Thanks for the pings!!
I’ll keep checking my tire pressure.
Who placed the birth announcement--was is secured via live birth records, etc, or was is telephoned in by either Stanley or her mother in Hawaii. if "Barry" was born somewhere else, and then transported to Hawaii--of course his mother would want American birth certificate for him.
Or is this clipping a fraud also? Afterall, I have great newspaper articles printed on newsprint that speak of fantastic subjects relating the my museum objects.
Thank you again, Meek.
Veddy, veddy interesting.
Really? Some 18 year-old gives birth outside the US, maybe in Indonesia someplace, and she is conniving enough and scheming enough to have a method for obtaining a US birth certificate for her child? Do you know of a single instance of such scheming aside from the one that you posit for Obama?
ML/NJ
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This kind of twisted, contorted thinking reminds me of the 'Paul is dead' nonsense of 1970.
You seem bent on believing that obama was born in some foreign country, without the slimmest of proofs. Just a couple of thoughts, why would an anti-American 18 year old mother place a birth notice in a Honolulu paper from somewhere else across the Pacific? How would that help her get a BC or US citizenship for her son? Please be specific.
I imagine the same way Americans visit Cuba even though the US bans travel to Cuba -- they first travel to Canada or Mexico and then fly to Cuba. (How do I know this? Check out my tag line.)
If the ban was a US ban on travel to Pakistan, then all that would mean is you can't fly to Pakistan from the US. In theory, you could get in trouble if US customs noticed the stamp on your way back, but I've never heard of that happening to anyone. Anyone else have any better info?
That would explain the trip to Indonesia before. That and visiting his mother and sister.
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