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Should Suspects Go Free When Police Blunder?
New York Times ^ | July 19, 2008 | Adam Liptak

Posted on 07/18/2008 12:03:59 PM PDT by reaganaut1

...

The United States is the only country to take the position that some police misconduct must automatically result in the suppression of physical evidence. The rule applies whether the misconduct is slight or serious, and without regard to the gravity of the crime or the power of the evidence.

“Foreign countries have flatly rejected our approach,” said Craig M. Bradley, an expert in comparative criminal law at Indiana University. “In every other country, it’s up to the trial judge to decide whether police misconduct has risen to the level of requiring the exclusion of evidence.”

But there are signs that some justices on the United States Supreme Court may be ready to reconsider the American version of the exclusionary rule. Writing for the majority two years ago, Justice Antonin Scalia said that at least some unconstitutional conduct ought not require “resort to the massive remedy of suppressing evidence of guilt.”

The court will soon have an opportunity to clarify matters. The justices will hear arguments on Oct. 7 about whether methamphetamines and a gun belonging to Bennie Dean Herring, of Brundidge, Ala., should be suppressed because the officers who conducted the search mistakenly believed he was subject to an outstanding arrest warrant as a result of the careless record-keeping of another police department.

Elsewhere in the world, courts have rejected what the Ontario appeals court in Mr. Harrison’s case called “the automatic exclusionary rule familiar to American Bill of Rights jurisprudence.”

(Excerpt) Read more at nytimes.com ...


TOPICS: Constitution/Conservatism; Crime/Corruption; Culture/Society; Government; News/Current Events
KEYWORDS: 4thamendment; billofrights; exclusionaryrule; fourthamendment; gramsci; judiciary; justice; miranda; scotus; supremecourt; tortreform
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To: Ainast
What happens if the police purposely blunder, to get someone they know or like off?

Any blunder should be met with disciplinary action, up to and including termination. If the action is purposeful, criminal charges should also be filed.

21 posted on 07/18/2008 12:30:35 PM PDT by NittanyLion
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To: NittanyLion
There are situations when there is abuse and then there are mistakes. Kicking a scumbag loose because someone didn't update a database is a lot different than random stop and search, police checkpoints and kicking down a door without probable cause.

All Scalia is questioning if we have to automatically exclude inadvertent mistakes.

22 posted on 07/18/2008 12:31:59 PM PDT by misterrob (Obama-Does America Need Another Jimmy Carter?)
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To: eastforker

Yeah. LH was just following orders!


23 posted on 07/18/2008 12:32:45 PM PDT by Seruzawa (American Government: Providing Middle Class Incomes to Unemployables for Over 200 Years!)
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To: reaganaut1
“The United States is the only country to take the position that some police misconduct must automatically result in the suppression of physical evidence.”

I've never thought a criminal should benefit from a technical mistake by a LEO. Reprimand or punish the LEO, but facts are facts.

24 posted on 07/18/2008 12:33:48 PM PDT by TheDon
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To: reaganaut1

It is insane that when a procedural error is made, and it can be clearly shown that it was not made intentionally or with malice or forethought, that things found after it are tossed.

Our legal system is also the only one I know of in the industrialized world with plea bargaining as well. The entire concept of plea bargaining is insane. If you can prove they have committed a crime, you charge them with the crime.. you don’t plea away the gun charge out of the gate because you’re a lazy ass prosecutor with designs on higher office, and want the automatic win to a lesser charge so you can make your tee time.


25 posted on 07/18/2008 12:40:20 PM PDT by HamiltonJay
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To: GovernmentShrinker
If there is police misconduct, punish the misconduct

This will never happen and that is why we need the exclusionary rule.
26 posted on 07/18/2008 12:41:16 PM PDT by microgood
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To: reaganaut1
The United States is the only country to take the position that some police misconduct must automatically result in the suppression of physical evidence.

This is to prevent the government from issuing sham warrants in order to go rummaging to see if they can find something that they can charge someone with. That whole 4th Amendment thing applies here.
27 posted on 07/18/2008 12:41:41 PM PDT by JamesP81 (George Orwell's 1984 was a warning, not a suggestion)
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To: microgood
Why bother with a search warrant at all?

Better question. Has one ever been denied?

28 posted on 07/18/2008 12:41:43 PM PDT by Mark was here (The earth is bipolar.)
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To: Seruzawa

I am not apologising for LH. The fact is he was/is a coldhearted killer, thats what he does and he does it without remorse. The ATF hired him, put him in position gave him the gun and the ammo and the ROE.I do not hold him pesonaly responsible, he is a killing machine that does what he knows and he did it under the cover of the ATF.


29 posted on 07/18/2008 12:42:02 PM PDT by eastforker (Get-R-Done and then Bring-Em- Home)
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To: djsherin
That’s because America tends to believe in these things called “rights” for all citizens regardless of what they may have done.

There are alternatives to the exclusion rule. For example, evidence obtained without a warrant could be admitted and the officer guilty of such misconduct could be prosecuted.

30 posted on 07/18/2008 12:44:23 PM PDT by monocle
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To: reaganaut1

If a crime is committed against society, society has the right to demand justice. Police blunders should not preclude that. Obviously that is a broad stroke.


31 posted on 07/18/2008 12:46:39 PM PDT by trublu
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To: trublu

Or, do we need to defend the rights of those who were engaged in acts that denied other people their rights?

Have fun with that one....


32 posted on 07/18/2008 12:51:57 PM PDT by misterrob (Obama-Does America Need Another Jimmy Carter?)
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To: reaganaut1

No. Next question?


33 posted on 07/18/2008 12:52:06 PM PDT by stop_fascism
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To: monocle

For example, evidence obtained without a warrant could be admitted ..................So, you are in favor of doing away with the Bill of Rights are you?


34 posted on 07/18/2008 12:52:12 PM PDT by eastforker (Get-R-Done and then Bring-Em- Home)
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To: microgood

So that innocent citizens can pay for police misconduct? That is trying to make Right out of two Wrongs.


35 posted on 07/18/2008 12:57:06 PM PDT by stop_fascism
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To: Mark was here

“Better question. Has one ever been denied?”

Almost never because the cops know what lies they can tell and get away with to get a warrant issued.


36 posted on 07/18/2008 12:58:21 PM PDT by RatSlayer
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To: stop_fascism
So that innocent citizens can pay for police misconduct? That is trying to make Right out of two Wrongs.

It is just a matter of understanding power and human nature. If police are not restrained they will show no restraint. If the exclusionary rule is eliminated, no police officer will ever get a search warrant again. They will kick down any door they want any time they want. That is just a fact of human nature.
37 posted on 07/18/2008 1:01:14 PM PDT by microgood
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To: reaganaut1

Should criminals have evidence suppressed, or be acquited due to improper procedures by police?

Crazy as this may sound, but yes, evidence should be suppressed, and criminals acquited.

Case in point. Mr Bennie has a gun and some meth on his person. Officers screw up and grab him in a case of mistaken identity. They then bust him on a drug charge, and aggravate that with gun in possession during a crime. Mr Bennie was not engaged in activity that any reasonable person would identify as criminal at the time. Assuming that Mr Bennie did not have enough meth to be considered a distributor, nor was he uttering threats to shoot anyone, then Mr Bennie was NOT engaged in activity that could reasonably be assumed to be threatening harm to anyone else. Ergo, the cops have no reason to have any interaction with him.

Put this in a different perspective. Government agents harass citizens. They ignore the rights of habeus corpus. They break into the wrong homes and kill the inhabitants thinking they are drug dealers. They “discover” illegal weapons in the home, along with perscription narcotics where the perscription has run out. And subsequently charge the inhabitants for those crimes.

Under the viewpoint of “castle” law, as long as I am not an active, visible threat to anyone in the community, the fact that I keep a balisong knife under my pillow and a sawed off shotgun in my closet for self defense purposes is not discoverable by the police. i.e. they have no basis to even try to obtain a warrant to search my home for those things.

Similarly, almost every home in America has perscription drugs that no longer have a valid perscription that could be abused. Many people have multiple, expired perscriptions for oxycodone, hydrocodone, morphine, etc in their medicine cabinets. Far over the limit to be considered enough to be charged with distribution. That does not give the government the right to break into a home, arrest and charge a person with drug possession and dealing.

This is exactly the sort of thing that will occur if convictions are granted for evidence of crimes found with the use of improper policing procedures.


38 posted on 07/18/2008 1:02:40 PM PDT by Dr_Zinj
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To: misterrob

I don’t think the primary concern is error as much as misconduct. To answer your question, in the most extreme cases, yes.


39 posted on 07/18/2008 1:02:55 PM PDT by paul51 (11 September 2001 - Never forget)
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To: Mark was here
Better question. Has one ever been denied?

Good point.
40 posted on 07/18/2008 1:05:13 PM PDT by microgood
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