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To: NoCmpromiz
"post 321 where you quote with authority the words of Jesus from the PEN of Matthew. In the passage you utilized Jesus quotes a passage from the PEN of the prophet Isaiah. "

Matt quotes God and God quotes Isaiah with authority. The authority of the passages I gave you is greater than any of the passages you gave me. They are God's words right out of God's mouth. The "all" of 2Tim 3:16 does allow you to pick and choose passages which, by themselves would overrule the words of God Himself. All scripture must conform to the words of God. That is a logical requirement for coherence and truth.

"Jesus said what he meant and meant what He said."

You haven't found what Jesus said, so you don't know what He said. You found what Paul and John said.

Re:"God came here to teach. In order to know what He taught, who He is and what He is about, I'll go to the source. Whatever anyone else has to say, I'll reference back to the source. If you learn from God, then you can understand the word of God. There is no other way."

"This is not a quote from the Bible, so it must be from your own source of wisdom literature."

It's required for rationality. God is rational.

480 posted on 05/02/2006 8:28:09 PM PDT by spunkets
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To: spunkets
Matt quotes God and God quotes Isaiah with authority. The authority of the passages I gave you is greater than any of the passages you gave me.

Let's go over this again. Matthew is quoting Jesus, who quotes Isaiah. So you are saying that Jesus is God, correct?

You haven't found what Jesus said, so you don't know what He said. You found what Paul and John said.

You haven't found what Jesus said either. You found what Matthew said He said... If your quote from the lips of Jesus via the PEN of Matthew is valid, the quote from the lips of Jesus via the PEN of John is equally valid. If Jesus words are the words of God, they are that both in Matthew, in Mark, in Luke, and in John (and in Revelation, and in Acts, and ...) You must either allow both equal vallidity, or reject both as being the words of man...

Explain your logic in accepting the words of Jesus as the words of God when recorded for us by the pen of the Apostle Matthew, and rejecting the words of Jesus as the words of man when recorded for us by the pen of the Apostle John please.

497 posted on 05/02/2006 8:54:36 PM PDT by NoCmpromiz (John 14:6 is a non-pluralistic comment.)
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