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To: SolidSupplySide

This is because a sales tax and and income tax can be structured to be "economically equivalent".

Ahmmm, "economically equivalent" just means they bring in the same amount of revenue to the govenment.

Any tax system can be made economically equivalent to any other tax. It just needs to be designed to be revenue neutral.

5 posted on 12/16/2005 2:29:52 PM PST by ancient_geezer (Don't reform it, Replace it!!)
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To: ancient_geezer
Ahmmm, "economically equivalent" just means they bring in the same amount of revenue to the govenment.

This is false. "Revenue neutral" means bringing in the same amount of revenue to the government. "Economically equivalent" means they impact the economy in the same exact way.

Any tax system can be made economically equivalent to any other tax. It just needs to be designed to be revenue neutral.

I suppose any kind of tax can be "revenue neutral". A city can reduce property tax and raise sales tax so that there is no change in revenue. But there will be economic effects of reducing property tax and raising the sales tax. Property ownership becomes more desirable. Economic activity becomes less desirable. Our "revenue neutral" changes in property tax and sales tax are not "economically equivalent".

6 posted on 12/16/2005 2:34:14 PM PST by SolidSupplySide
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To: ancient_geezer
What happens to the present sales taxes we pay on purchases imposed by cities and counties?
8 posted on 12/16/2005 2:38:08 PM PST by Recon Dad (Force Recon Dad (and proud of it))
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