To: RusIvan
SO lizol if I understaood you correctly you say taht if germans used as precondition of annexation the german population in SUdetens. Then Poland could do the same.
No, you did not understand me correctly, I didn't say anything like that. It's another one of your "conslusions".
You just said, that Poland must have been in conspiracy with Germans (some secret one probably), as in other case they wouldn't let Poles take Zaolzie.
And I said, that Germans justified annexation of Sudetenland with the fact, that it was populated mainly by Germans. And such an annexation was accepted by France and UK in Munich.
So if they took Zaolzie (populated mainly by Poles), that "justification" would fail. And this might be the reason why they didn't do it.
But this is only my speculation.
Another thing is, that - if I'm wrong, and Germans actually wanted to take Zaolzie - Polish troops might enter that area against their will - to be first and not to let them take it.
But I know, you're going to maintain anyway, that it was Polish-German co-operation.
377 posted on
11/23/2005 8:43:10 AM PST by
lizol
To: lizol
And I said, that Germans justified annexation of Sudetenland with the fact, that it was populated mainly by Germans. And such an annexation was accepted by France and UK in Munich.
So if they took Zaolzie (populated mainly by Poles), that "justification" would fail.==
Exactly lizol:). Then I understood you well after all:). So for germans this justification works on Sudeten region but for poles it works on Tishin(Zaozelie) region. Before same France and Britain and whole world to add:).
But I know, you're going to maintain anyway, that it was Polish-German co-operation.==
Cooperation according dictionary is mutual work for benefits maybe different for each involved party.
385 posted on
11/23/2005 10:35:35 AM PST by
RusIvan
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