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Judicial Activism or Judicial Restraint? (vanity)

Posted on 06/24/2005 7:10:34 AM PDT by Crush T Velour

Here's the situation. Nowhere in the Constitution does it say that the elected governments of cities can't define "imminent domain" as land for a shopping mall. I don't think they should, but is it a question for the Supreme Court to involve itself?

This is a policy issue. The legislature of Connecticutt should get involved and pass a law that says "the government can't seize private property for private use." Or maybe the Congress and Senate should.

But the Supreme Court...finally had the restraint not to involve itself in policy decisions. And I think that's good.


TOPICS: Constitution/Conservatism; Government; News/Current Events; Unclassified; Your Opinion/Questions
KEYWORDS: court; imminentdomain; kelo; property; seize; shoppingmalls; spellingbee; supreme
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1 posted on 06/24/2005 7:10:34 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
You don't need no stinkin' Bill of Rights, huh?
2 posted on 06/24/2005 7:15:41 AM PDT by DeFault User
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To: Crush T Velour

The difference between belief that the government can do everything that is not specifically prohibited and the belief that the government can do only what is specifically enumerated.


3 posted on 06/24/2005 7:17:49 AM PDT by cotton1706
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To: DeFault User

Leaving aside the fact that the Bill of Rights was originally intended to apply only to the Federal government...

Where in the Bill of Rights does it say that private uses are not to be construed as imminent domain?


4 posted on 06/24/2005 7:18:28 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
Not to pick on anyone but please can we get the word right? It's eminent domain, not imminent.
5 posted on 06/24/2005 7:21:10 AM PDT by Paine in the Neck
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To: cotton1706; DeFault User
The difference between belief that the government can do everything that is not specifically prohibited and the belief that the government can do only what is specifically enumerated.

Actually the constitution says any right not expressly given to the Federal Government is right belonging to the the PEOPLE. Nowhere in the Constitution does it say that the rights not given to the Federal Government are the property of the Supreme Court to dole out.

City councils are the elected representatives of the PEOPLE. The answer is for the PEOPLE's state representatives to right laws to prevent an oligarchy in a small town from robbing the PEOPLE. Othewise, there is no aspect of human life or government policy (such as capital punishment or abortion) that the Supreme Court as our philosopher kings SHOULD not rule on.

6 posted on 06/24/2005 7:25:48 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour

See post #3 and the wording itself: " nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation."


7 posted on 06/24/2005 7:25:53 AM PDT by DeFault User
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To: Crush T Velour
Where in the Bill of Rights does it say that private uses are not to be construed as imminent domain?

"shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation."

However, you're right, the Constitution and BOR were intended to apply to the Federal government. As an example, when the first amendment was ratified, in 1791 ("Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion"), the majority of the states had established religions.

However, since states rights has pretty much been disregarded over the last 150 years, conservatives are justly annoyed when, in one of the few times the SC actually limits the power of the federal government, it does so in a manner that (currently) alters private property law - at least until the people of the various states demand changes of their representatives.
8 posted on 06/24/2005 7:30:14 AM PDT by babyface00
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To: DeFault User; cotton1706
See post #3 and the wording itself: " nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation."

They city (as I understand it) IS compensating the owners just as if a highway were coming through. The problem is that they are forcing the owners to sell not for a highway but for some other private entity to use the land. That's wrong, I agree. I just don't think it is a concern of the Supreme Court.

9 posted on 06/24/2005 7:31:02 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
conservatives are justly annoyed when, in one of the few times the SC actually limits the power of the federal government, it does so in a manner that (currently) alters private property law - at least until the people of the various states demand changes of their representatives.

Yes that's frustrating. But the Court act rightly regardless. It is the duty of the legislature of Connecticut to right this wrong...not the SCOTUS.

10 posted on 06/24/2005 7:34:13 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
I just don't think it is a concern of the Supreme Court

In a perfect world, it wouldn't be. However, after the SC's decisions for decades transferring power from the states to the FG on civil rights, abortion, sodomy, just to name a few issues - there are plenty more, it seems awfully odd that they picked this issue not to intervene.
11 posted on 06/24/2005 7:34:52 AM PDT by babyface00
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To: babyface00

Oops! Posted to myself. How embarrassing!


12 posted on 06/24/2005 7:35:07 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
Judicial Activism or Judicial Restraint?

The federal government is supposed to do certain things that it doesn't, like control our borders. When it fails to do such, it is neglecting one of its core duties.

Likewise, within a short period of time, SCOTUS said that interstate commerce involved something that did not move interstate and was never sold - and that was sanctioned by the state government as well.

And then SCOTUS said that taking someone's land for someone else's private use was somehow public.

So, at the end of the day, this isn't about judicial restraint. It's about judicial abidication of a duty to uphold the Constituition.

13 posted on 06/24/2005 7:35:28 AM PDT by dirtboy (Drool overflowed my buffer...)
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To: Crush T Velour
I just don't think it is a concern of the Supreme Court.

If Constitutional-mandated prohibitions of government power are not applied, they mean nothing. And in this day and age, SCOTUS has set itself up as the final arbiter of what those prohibitions mean - and apparently, like Humpty Dumpty, to SCOTUS those words mean what they want them to mean.

14 posted on 06/24/2005 7:36:56 AM PDT by dirtboy (Drool overflowed my buffer...)
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To: babyface00
In a perfect world, it wouldn't be. However, after the SC's decisions for decades transferring power from the states to the FG on civil rights, abortion, sodomy, just to name a few issues - there are plenty more, it seems awfully odd that they picked this issue not to intervene.

Well, I for one do not intend to throw in the towel and relinquish my rights to a cabal of nine unelected judges just because they might say something I like once in a while.

15 posted on 06/24/2005 7:37:39 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
This ruling by the USSC leaves no question that the present battle for the right to nominated and confirm judges based on those rules outlined in the Constitution must be won by President Bush.

This ruling is a direct assault on our basic rights and liberties, the Courts must be brought back in line.
16 posted on 06/24/2005 7:40:09 AM PDT by Rumplemeyer
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To: dirtboy
So, at the end of the day, this isn't about judicial restraint. It's about judicial abdication of a duty to uphold the Constitution.

You are insisting that the SCOTUS involve itself within the state definitions of "public use". Basically, you seem to be insisting that the SCOTUS involve itself in policy decisions. That's the road that got us Roe v Wade, and the Court deciding at what age and SAT score Capital Punishment becomes "cruel and unusual", etc.

The Court did not abdicate its responsibility. For once, it found a responsibility in which its infinite wisdom was unnecessary.

17 posted on 06/24/2005 7:43:21 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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To: Crush T Velour
You are insisting that the SCOTUS involve itself within the state definitions of "public use".

SCOTUS injected itself into this debate long ago. Since it has, I expect it to follow the 5th and the 14th. They didn't.

The Court did not abdicate its responsibility. For once, it found a responsibility in which its infinite wisdom was unnecessary.

Wrong. For your logic to be correct, they would have refused to hear the case. They didn't.

18 posted on 06/24/2005 7:47:24 AM PDT by dirtboy (Drool overflowed my buffer...)
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To: Crush T Velour
The 5th Amendment has been incorporated by the 14thmeaning that it applies to the states.

The 5th Amendment has a "takings clause" and a "public use" clause. At least it used to, it doesn't anymore, it now has a "want clause", if deep pockets "wants" your land and he has enough politicos in his pocket the land is his for the taking.

In America we have a constitutional republic that rules by majority but that majorities rules can not violate anybodys rights. Property rights are basic to the American way of life and without them we are lost. This is not a hard case. Conservatives should oppose this with all the spare change and time they can afford. You know how it goes, they came for my neighbore and I did nothing and then they came for me....

19 posted on 06/24/2005 7:47:25 AM PDT by jwalsh07 ("Su casa es mi casa!" SCOTUS 6/23/05)
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To: jwalsh07; dirtboy; babyface00; DeFault User; cotton1706

What can I say? I wish all the rulings of the SCOTUS were as easily remedied as this one will be.


20 posted on 06/24/2005 7:51:24 AM PDT by Crush T Velour
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