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Supreme Court Rejects Georgia Redistricting Plan
Reuters ^ | 6.30.04 | Reuters

Posted on 06/30/2004 10:40:47 AM PDT by BlessedByLiberty

WASHINGTON (Reuters) - The U.S. Supreme Court ruled on Wednesday that redistricting plans for Georgia's state legislature violated the constitutional "one person, one vote" principle in a defeat for state Democrats who put forward the proposal. The justices affirmed a ruling in February by a three-judge federal court panel that threw out the legislative map for the state House of Representatives and Senate as unconstitutional.

The lower court found a deliberate and systematic policy of favoring rural and inner city interests in the redistricting plans at the expense of suburban areas around Atlanta.

It also found an intentional effort to help Democrats maintain or increase their numbers in the state legislature by underpopulating districts held by Democrats, overpopulating districts held by Republicans and pairing numerous incumbent Republicans against one another.

Under landmark Supreme Court rulings, every person's vote must essentially count equally, something that would not happen if voting districts were redrawn so that the number of voters in each would favor one party over another.

(Excerpt) Read more at reuters.com ...


TOPICS: Extended News; Front Page News; Government; News/Current Events; Politics/Elections; US: Georgia
KEYWORDS: dems; election; ga; politics; ratwatch; redistricting; scotus; supremecourt
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1 posted on 06/30/2004 10:40:50 AM PDT by BlessedByLiberty
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To: BlessedByLiberty
Does anyone have a pointer to the decision where they decided that the Constitution required "one man, one vote"? Given that the US Senate violates this principle, I'd like to see where they found it.
2 posted on 06/30/2004 10:43:13 AM PDT by Question_Assumptions
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To: BlessedByLiberty

The use of "one person, one vote" and "Democrats" in the same sentence is an oxymoron...


3 posted on 06/30/2004 10:43:42 AM PDT by talleyman ("Courage, Tiepo - this magic omelet will protect you!")
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To: Question_Assumptions

I think it refers to the GA State Constitution.


4 posted on 06/30/2004 10:44:10 AM PDT by Puppage (You may disagree with what I have to say, but I shall defend to your death my right to say it)
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To: BlessedByLiberty

At first glance, it seems as though the Court may have gotten something right.


5 posted on 06/30/2004 10:44:18 AM PDT by OldPossum
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To: BlessedByLiberty
Archetypal hard-ass GA voter to the state Democratic Party:

See...now, what we have here is a failure to communicate. Now, if you'll just refer back to the decision of the U.S. Soo-preme Court, and get your'n head out of your butt, then I'll think we'll get along just dandy!

6 posted on 06/30/2004 10:44:52 AM PDT by The Scourge of Yazid ("You either ride with us, or collide with us!" (The Secrets of War.)
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To: BlessedByLiberty

If Georgia House districts are drawn fairly, the GOP stands a good chance of taking over the House as well as the Senate. Its the Democrats last ditch effort to stave off the inevitable.


7 posted on 06/30/2004 10:45:01 AM PDT by goldstategop (In Memory Of A Dearly Beloved Friend Who Lives On In My Heart Forever)
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To: Question_Assumptions

Wesberry v Sanders 1964


8 posted on 06/30/2004 10:49:20 AM PDT by sugarbabe
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To: Question_Assumptions
Well, since the requirement that each state have 2 US senators is written into the Constitution, it would be hard to argue that it is unconstitutional based on the "one man, one vote" principle...

Actually, according to the Constitution originally, senators were not voted on, but were appointed by the states. As someone on another thread pointed out, the original plan was for the people to elect the House of Representatives, the state governors to appoint the Senate, and the state legislators to elect the President (through the appoinment of the electors to the Electoral College). The founders were very big on separating powers...

9 posted on 06/30/2004 10:53:37 AM PDT by CA Conservative
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To: sugarbabe

Did that ruling say that the number of Democrats and Republicans must be perfectly balanced in each district?


10 posted on 06/30/2004 10:57:39 AM PDT by bvw
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To: Question_Assumptions; sugarbabe

It's based on the Equal Protection Clause and was originally ruled in Baker v Carr which involved Tennessee's failure to reapportion legislative districts for over 60 years. Two years afterward it was extended to congressional apportionment via Wesberry v Sanders.


11 posted on 06/30/2004 11:00:35 AM PDT by AntiGuv (™)
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To: bvw

no, just one man one vote. The case came out of Georgia. The court noted that Article I, Section 2 declares that representatives shall be chosen "by the People of the several States" and shall be "apportioned among the several States.....according to their respective numbers...." This meant "as nearly as practicable one man's vote in a congressional election is to be worth as much as another's."


12 posted on 06/30/2004 11:04:32 AM PDT by sugarbabe
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To: Question_Assumptions

"Does anyone have a pointer to the decision where they decided that the Constitution required "one man, one vote"? Given that the US Senate violates this principle, I'd like to see where they found it."

A case name has already been posted. The first case involved Tennessee, where the state constitution specified that there should be a reapportionment of the state legislature every ten years based on the national census. That hadn't been done for roughly 50 years if I recall correctly. The Tennessee courts refused to do anything about it. So the US Supreme Court created the "one man, one vote" doctrine whole cloth. The best rationale might have been based on the ability of the Federal government to assure a republican form of government to the various states, but my recollection (now very stale) is that it did not.


13 posted on 06/30/2004 11:07:25 AM PDT by labard1
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To: bvw
Did that ruling say that the number of Democrats and Republicans must be perfectly balanced in each district?

The problem was not that they had more Dems than Republicans in particular districts - that is done all the time, on both sides. The problem was that they did not keep substatially equal population in each district. For example, they might have only have 50,000 people in a district that was 55%-45% Dem -Rep, but put 150,000 in a district that is 90%-10% Rep-Dem. By packing more Republicans into fewer, larger districts they reduced the number of possible seats the republicans could win. (My numbers are exaggerated to illustrate the point.)

14 posted on 06/30/2004 11:07:47 AM PDT by CA Conservative
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To: AntiGuv; sugarbabe
Thanks for the pointers. What I'm specifically wondering is why New Jersey's Senate overlaps with its Assembly (House equivalent) rather than having the Senators represent the counties and the Assebly represent the people. I remember hearing that they changed the Senate for one man, one vote reasons.
15 posted on 06/30/2004 11:08:58 AM PDT by Question_Assumptions
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To: BlessedByLiberty
Something at the Reuters site crashed my Internet Explorere (which I shouldn't have been using) twice.

Switched to Mozilla Firefox and all was well. Guess I need to delete all the shortcuts to IE to avoid this happening again.

16 posted on 06/30/2004 11:13:25 AM PDT by capt. norm (Rap is to music what the Etch-A-Sketch is to art.)
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To: CA Conservative
The Constitution doesn't recognize parties. Voters yes, parties no. By forcing a fifty-fifty to the named two parties ONLY the Federal Government -- including the Courts -- overstep their chartered limits and disenfranchise all voters not fully fidelic to those two -- that is anyone who would like to initiate, promote, vote or run under the auspices of a third party.

Extending the courts ruling (if I'm understanding it correctly) to a logically historic conclusion Therefor we should ban the Repubican Party -- any third or fourth or moreth party -- from the ballot -- from any official allowance whatsoever. Why? Only WHIGS and FEDERALISTS are allowed. Sorry.

17 posted on 06/30/2004 11:16:45 AM PDT by bvw
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To: bvw

No one is requiring that the parties be balanced within districts, only that the total population be balanced between districts. I'm not entirely sure what point you're trying to make, but whatever it is almost certainly involves some misunderstanding on your part..


18 posted on 06/30/2004 11:20:33 AM PDT by AntiGuv (™)
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To: BlessedByLiberty

My take on the decision is that the deviation in population per district was not small and random, but was substantial and correlated with rural/urban, white/black and other factors. Therefore, there was a purpose to the deviation in population per district.

It is well established that the U.S. Constitution allows for gerrymandering districts, so that almost any shape district will be allowed (there is a limit), BUT ... the districts must have substantially the same number of persons. (State constitutions might impose other requirements.)

The Georgia state legislature not only gerrymandered districts, they systematically over-loaded Republican districts. Hence the ruling.


19 posted on 06/30/2004 11:22:43 AM PDT by Redmen4ever
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To: Question_Assumptions

Hmm.. Well, I'm uncertain whether that decision was based on New Jersey law or the U.S. Constitution so I can't give you a clear answer. In most states, Assembly and Senate districts do not overlap at all so something is going on with New Jersey that doesn't apply nationwide.

Moreover, court rulings have left a whole lot more leeway when it comes to legislative districts than they do when it comes to congressional districts. Legislative districts can differ by as much as 10% in population whereas congressional districts need to adhere as closely as possible to one-person/one-vote.


20 posted on 06/30/2004 11:23:59 AM PDT by AntiGuv (™)
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