The Church and the Gospel mantained that Jesus never married for centuries in anticipation of the day when it would begin ordering its own officers not to marry? What's "plausible" about that? Was there Divine intervention?
Let's try that again. The "plausible" theory is the bloodline theory from post #33:
Allegedly, so it doesn't undermine the Church's teachings on celibacy and to defuse any potential claims that Christ has any surviving bloodline (which would make him a mortal prophet).