Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: presidio9
The Church and the Gospel mantained that Jesus never married for centuries in anticipation of the day when it would begin ordering its own officers not to marry? What's "plausible" about that? Was there Divine intervention?

Let's try that again. The "plausible" theory is the bloodline theory from post #33:

Allegedly, so it doesn't undermine the Church's teachings on celibacy and to defuse any potential claims that Christ has any surviving bloodline (which would make him a mortal prophet).

54 posted on 03/03/2004 8:41:14 AM PST by BrooklynGOP (www.logicandsanity.com)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 52 | View Replies ]


To: BrooklynGOP
Allegedly, so it doesn't undermine the Church's teachings on celibacy and to defuse any potential claims that Christ has any surviving bloodline (which would make him a mortal prophet).

A) Jesus was 100% mortal. That's the central point of Christianity.

B) Priests could marry until the middle ages. They still can in the Greek Church, which has the same New Testament as the Roman one.

C) These stories were in existence well before the Church itself had any wealth or power to protect. The point has been made in the past that priestly celibacy was designed to protect the Church's assets, denying legitimacy to the offspring of its officials, and there is reason to this. However, the Gospels predate that reason. Jesus may have been many things. He was not married. It makes no sense.

58 posted on 03/03/2004 8:52:48 AM PST by presidio9 (FREE MARTHA)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 54 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson