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Their connection (and reason for the shared name) could be due to the Aryans of before either. The Picts could be seperatists from the same tribe that went to India all those years ago. One on either side of the caucus mountains

Actually based on the dispersal of peoples and on linguistics, I'm more inclined to believe that the INdo-Europeans originated in the region between north-western India, Eastern Persia and Central Asia with the Iranis being the most 'pure' Indo-Europeans. This is borne out by the migrations of the Indo-Europeans to Europe (first the Mitanni then the Hittites around 2000 B.C.) also -- the 'invasion' of India seems increasingly a myth -- there are no traces of massacres in the cities of Mohenjo-daro and Harappa. THe Indo-Europeans seem to have moved into India just like the Amorites did in Sumeria -- shepherds, cattle-herders slowly moving into civilised areas -- like Mexicans moving into America, slowly the natives were replaced.

Never said anything about an "invasion" simply "went to"

I think that is fair enough, considering the "echo" from India a couple thousand years later in the global community. Heavy Aryan influences.

I believe (And NO, this is NOT an "Aryan Race" piece) that the origins of the Arayan languages could be the root of all languages (or at least, is VERY close)

Wherever they came from before they got in to the mountians is where our answers may lie.