I'm not talking "modern" Asian.. ( and I think I'm right in my distinction here.. )
If we were talking about today's asian you would be correct.
The reason I asked ( in parens ) if there was a "distinction" was due to the time frame..
The American Indian is basically the "pure" asian I am discussing in that post..
That migratory group had not yet been mixed with others, including ( and this is where my question lies ) with the mongoloid..
Where were the mongoloid prior to/during/at the end of the Ice Age?
The Eastern continent? Farther inland?
Did they have as much contact with the asians at that time?
Likewise, where were the Indo-Europeans, Melonesians, etc.. ?
I guess what I'm saying is, I was actually pointing out in that post that this was a time of "mass migrations" of basic racial groups, which forced the celts out of the area, to the west..
As those groups in the asian continent expanded, and forced out the celts, they also intermingled, and that was where the question of "distinction" between asian and mongoloid came in..