I would guess that this is due to entering Iran post 1979 and not upsetting the nuts that allowed him to enter Iran.
It was the Shah in the 1950s who asked the world to refer to Iran by the name it always used for itself, namely “Iran”. Ancient Iran was known as Airyana Vaejah (Old Iranian) or Eran (Middle Persian), which means “Land of the Aryans”
Persia is a part of Iran in the same way as Holland is a part of the Netherlands.
The name Iran predates Islam by millennia. It means “land of the Aryans”. The Aryans were people who lived in Iran and northern India (incidentally the Nordic/Germanic people were/are not Aryans.
Tge northern Indians also were Aryans. Āryāvarta (meaning “Land of the Aryans”) is an ancient Sanskrit term for the northern Indian subcontinent, specifically covering the area between the Himalayas and the Vindhya Mountains, extending from the western sea to the eastern.
Did even Persia exist 4,000 years ago?
The Iran-Persia confusion goes back to antiquity and ancient Greece, and is somewhat similar to modern English’s confusion of Holland and Netherlands. Holland is the largest province in the Netherlands. Likewise, Fars was the largest province in ancient Iran, and the Greek word for Iran gave rise to modern English “Persia”, but Iranians always used their country’s equivilant of “Iran” to refer to the country as a whole.
Farsi (Persian language) is an Indo-European language like Hindi, English, and the Celtic languages. The IR- stem in Iran comes from the same Indo-European stem as Sanskrit “AR” in Aryan and “IR” in Ireland.