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To: Libloather

The question is:

“What does under the Jurisdiction” mean?

How can someone, who violates the laws of the United States and it’s people, ‘be under the Jurisdiction’. They have not submitted to the ‘Jurisdiction’ or laws of the United States. Just like the ‘Native Americans’ in 1865 had not submitted to the ‘Jurisdiction’ and were not citizens until they had.


28 posted on 03/31/2026 6:50:24 AM PDT by Pete Dovgan
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To: Pete Dovgan

It isn’t “under the jurisdiction”... it’s “subject to the jurisdiction.”

The first would apply to just about anyone as you place yourself under the jurisdiction of local laws by your presence. That’s how the Left views the 14th Amendment. The second refers to a status of citizenship. In language, the British are subjects of the crown while Americans are citizens of the United States. Location doesn’t change this.


32 posted on 03/31/2026 6:57:34 AM PDT by pgyanke (Republicans get in trouble when not living up to their principles. Democrats... when they do.)
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To: Pete Dovgan
"Jurisdiction" within the original intent of the wording of the 14th Amendment in 1866, meant "POLITICAL jurisdiction."

In other words, a citizen can serve on juries and be drafted into military service, as duties of US citizenship.

Legally, now, non-citizens are exempt from these responsibilities.

Later Supreme Court rulings clarified that "political jurisdiction" was "exclusive" meaning it could not be shared with another sovereign entity, per the Slaughterhouse cases of the 1870's and Elk v. Wilkins of 1884.

64 posted on 03/31/2026 9:30:42 AM PDT by research99
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