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Posted on 08/11/2025 2:01:58 AM PDT by RandFan
I was reading our favorite (ahem) online encyclopedia and noticed something interesting: that the Dems completely dominated the House since the 1950s until circa 1994.
How did they pull that off? We're talking 40-50 years until that Republican "revolution".
Now I know why it was named as such.
What lessons can we learn? It's well before my time but figured FR might know the historical answer!
Is it something to do with how districts are/were apportioned which is actually very topical and in the news right now?
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Well, Republicans mostly had control after the Civil War 1860 to 1933.
From 1932 to 1998 democrats mostly had control.
In 1932, the democrats gained 97 seats in the House (117 to 313) 54.48% to 42.05%
In 1932, the democrats gained 12 seats in the Senate (36 to 59)
In 1932, the democrats gained the Presidency, with Franklin D Roosevelt defeating Herbert Hoover. 472-59 (57.4% to 39.6%)
They have been tough to dislodge every since.
The rats were depraved their entire history - from 1828 when they formed to overturn the Missouri compromise - they wanted to expand slavery into the territories
to 1854 when they did overturn it with the Kansas-Nebraska act - causing a decade of bloody conflict in Kansas and Nebraska and resulting in the formation of the Republican party.
to 1860 when they fomented a bloody rebellion because they refused to share the government with the Republicans (we had the Presidency and a small majority in the House)
to post civil war when they founded the KKK, the White League, etc. etc. etc. They murdered, intimidated, lynched the Republican party out of the South for over a 100 years.
to post LBJ ‘great society’ where they bribed and threatened their victims to continue voting for them.
now they are on to violence using ANTIFA, BLM, etc.
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