The only way to clear this mess up once and for all is to pass a very clear, unambiguous 28th Amendment to the Constitution.
Otherwise 'subject to the jurisdiction thereof' will be debated and whipsawed by administration after administration, judge after judge, SCOTUS after SCOTUS for purely partisan political reasons.
While I have no problem with an Amendment to define it.
The job of the SCOTUS is the interpret the text as written, and there is already ample clear evidence that require no speculation what “subject to the jurisdiction” means.
I agree. That’s the operative clause needing specific clarification from the USSC.
I don’t think some cow from China here on a ‘birth tourism’ vacation qualifies to the “subject to the jurisdiction thereof” part because it is ONLY that part of their property, belongings or actions here in the US that are possibly subject....none of their home country interests are adjudicated, etc.
The Amendment was meant for the children of freed former slaves.