[Political Junkie Too]

Yes, I did. It was the US Code since 1948, so it's been in place for 75 years.

FYI... I accidentally post the link to the current code; here is the link to the prior version of the code.

The code was intended to put into law the process for complying with the Constitution.

-PJ

[Alberta's Child]

That 1948 statute was simply an update of the original Electoral Count Act of 1887. The procedures seem to be identical.

As I posted earlier on this thread, that law should never stand up to constitutional scrutiny if it is challenged -- because it makes it perfectly legal for Congress to reject electoral votes from one or more states even if there was never any dispute about the validity of those electoral votes. That is a blatant violation of the sovereignty of state governments, and has no basis in constitutional law. It's ludicrous to have a law on the books that allows (for example) California to lead an effort in Congress to disqualify the totally legitimate electoral votes of Texas.