OK -- fair enough.
But what does this have to do with the real-world example I gave of a common area in an HOA?
I don’t see what that example has to do with this article, which is about one person effectively stealing another’s property simply by claiming squatter’s rights, IOW, they were using it so they get to keep it?
I suppose in the common area situation, someone else still owns the land, therefore you are apprehending property that someone paid for and is not you own, to take it for yourself without paying for it.
Instead, if people want to own a parcel of common use property, why don’t they put in an offer to buy it? My only guess is they want it without having to pay for it.