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To: C210N

“Now, if he had an Allodial title, he would be sovereign over his land, and anybody thinking otherwise could be told to pound sand.”

Nope. His neighbor had occu0ation. He gave it up.


19 posted on 03/07/2023 2:39:13 AM PST by TexasGator
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To: TexasGator
Nope. His neighbor had occu0ation. He gave it up.

Having allodial title would have made ANYTHING his neighbor did immaterial. Fact is, he didn't allodially own his land, his municipality/county did, and therefore the municipality/county was within its 'rights' to take away this man's 'color of title', and transfer to his neighbor.

If he had allodial title, only he could do so... not a court or magistrate on his behalf.

36 posted on 03/07/2023 4:30:06 AM PST by C210N (Everything will be okay in the end. If it’s not okay, it’s not the end.)
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