Having allodial title would have made ANYTHING his neighbor did immaterial. Fact is, he didn't allodially own his land, his municipality/county did, and therefore the municipality/county was within its 'rights' to take away this man's 'color of title', and transfer to his neighbor.
If he had allodial title, only he could do so... not a court or magistrate on his behalf.
Nope. His neighbor occupied the property.
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