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To: gleeaikin

Mostly fat fingers and little keyboard on iPhone. ARDS Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. Defined as Pa/Fi of oxygen gradient <200:1

OPCAB off pump CABG. Not at lot of fun to anesthetize. My guess is that this operation (chick was airlifted to academic center or at least a tertiary care center with peds hearts) with RVDO and TEF requires pretty emergent surgery. It’s not like this was a elective knee replacement.

As for the rest of it. There is zero evidence as to vaccinated donors causing prothrombotic events. The real issue here is there was probably a large femoral venous thrombosis because that is where they cannulate for venous drainage in pediatric pump cases. Grey Whiskers could not answer that question nor anyone else because the have zero idea what actually went on. There are about a million reasons for this kid to have thrombosis of the femoral veins and if it is correct although the parents interview is suspect extension to the IVC. The presence of MRSA either excludes in its entirety that this clot was caused by the transfusion or suggests MRSA septicemia was the cause. In either event it wasn’t the transfusion.

That is why I asked the questions I did to see if anyone out there actually understood what really happened. Everyone with an agenda stated this one case proves their theory beyond a doubt. It simply does not.

But disagree with it and the pseudo ministers of the faith call you a demonic sociopath. The reasons I ask the questions I do is to illustrate the lack of critical thinking and fundamental understanding of the fringe element (and yea they are fringe. Very few people are talking of pure bloods and he rest of the nonsense) as this is simply not an issue. Over a billion doses give to over 250 million people in America. Trust me. We’re this a clinical issue it would have been abundantly evident by now.


211 posted on 12/18/2022 6:11:43 AM PST by gas_dr (Conditions of Socratic debate: Intelligence, Candor, and Good Will)
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To: gas_dr
"...illustrate the lack of critical thinking and fundamental understanding...

Welcome to the majority of the anti COVID-19 vaccination threads, where people dying are used to advance the narrative.

213 posted on 12/18/2022 8:27:17 AM PST by Fury
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To: gas_dr
The presence of MRSA either excludes in its entirety that this clot was caused by the transfusion or suggests MRSA septicemia was the cause. In either event it wasn’t the transfusion.

Here's the relevant questions.

1) Location of clots

What is the the typical constellation of symptoms for MRSA infection introduced into the bloodstream? Does it include clotting? If so, is there a typical description of the clotting, i.e. is it proximal to the needle injection site, or downstream of where the MRSA-carrying blood enters the body?

Or is it systemic with no focal point? Or does it typically start clotting in a particular organ (heart, or lungs, or kidneys)? Or in extremities? Or at joints?

2) Timing of clots

How long after the MRSA enters the blood, does it take for clots to start forming?

How does one distinguish clots formed as a side effect of the procedure itself, to clots formed as a result of MRSA infection?

3) Amenability of clots to treatment

What blood thinners are typically used on MRSA clots?
What dosage?
Is the successful resolution of clots dependent on the size of clots when blood thinners are first given?
Is it necessary to clear the system of MRSA before clots resolve?
Or can it happen "the clots went away but the remaining MRSA killed the patient anyway" ?
4) Physiochemical characteristics of clots

Do the clots in the dead baby look typical of the abnormal clots reported in dead jab recipients by embalmers and doctors who are honest enough to come public about these things?

5) Is there such a thing as introducing MRSA during the transfusion? The only symptom mentioned in the article the day after the medical procedure (for which, remember, the attending physician said clots are "rare" -- what a loaded term; the articles I looked up suggested up to about 10% incidence of clots, which is a convenient level for argument in that you can simultaneously defend the doctor calling them rare, but use the 10% as a cudgel for presumptively arguing the clots must have come from the procedure) -- the only symptom mentioned was a low hemoglobin count. Is that a early symptom of clotting, or of MRSA infection?

Just shouting "I'm a DOCTOR" doesn't cut the mustard.

215 posted on 12/18/2022 8:34:41 AM PST by grey_whiskers ( (The opinions are solely those of the author and are subject to change without notice.))
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To: gas_dr
Here's a hint.

Once you've squandered your credibility backing murderous sociopaths (remember the billions of dollars in CRIMINAL fines paid by Pfizer over Vioxx and Bextra, followed by their pushig to have the safety trial data on the jabs sealed for 75 years?), you can't just go "I'm a doctor" and expect anyone to care.

Grey Whiskers could not answer that question nor anyone else because the have zero idea what actually went on. There are about a million reasons for this kid to have thrombosis of the femoral veins and if it is correct although the parents interview is suspect extension to the IVC. The presence of MRSA either excludes in its entirety that this clot was caused by the transfusion or suggests MRSA septicemia was the cause. In either event it wasn’t the transfusion.

Yeah, my questions in 215 were designed to ferret out whether that happened in this particular case.

Your reply to that post was literally to call them distractions and nonsense.

Trust me. We’re this a clinical issue it would have been abundantly evident by now.

Yeah, that's what PFauci said too.

"Trust me"

"Safe and Effective"

Once you've backed sociopaths like Pfauci, just saying "I'm a *DOCTOR*" carries ZERO weight. Your credibility is shot.

236 posted on 12/19/2022 5:12:41 AM PST by grey_whiskers ( (The opinions are solely those of the author and are subject to change without notice.))
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