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1 posted on 11/07/2022 10:05:49 AM PST by grundle
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To: grundle

The Daily Beast?
Uh-huh.
‘Nuff said.


2 posted on 11/07/2022 10:07:31 AM PST by Da Coyote
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To: grundle
LOL!

Kevin Fallon literally writes for The Daily Beast With Two Backs...

3 posted on 11/07/2022 10:07:59 AM PST by kiryandil (China Joe and Paycheck Hunter - the Chink in America's defenses)
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To: grundle

This is dishonest gibberish. The Bible plainly teaches sodomy is a sin throughout, from Genesis through the New Testament. Harping on a single word choice distracts from a truth that has been taught for millenia.


5 posted on 11/07/2022 10:09:05 AM PST by EnderWiggin1970
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To: grundle

It’s a sin in every religion.


6 posted on 11/07/2022 10:10:54 AM PST by far sider
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To: grundle

The first time the word “homosexual” appeared in the Bible was in 1946.

The stupid is strong with this one.


7 posted on 11/07/2022 10:11:09 AM PST by rdl6989 ( )
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To: grundle

Nonsense - as such things are mentioned many times over as being outside the norms of sexual morality without that specific term being mentioned - specifically saying men having relations with men and women with women is unnatural. Doesn’t exactly leave any room for ambiguity. Was all of that “mistranslated” as well?


8 posted on 11/07/2022 10:11:11 AM PST by Republican Wildcat
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To: grundle

it’s not in the KJV but it’s completely clear that homosexual behavior, which is described quite graphically, is an abomination.


9 posted on 11/07/2022 10:12:21 AM PST by LibertyWoman (America, the Handwriting is on the Wall. )
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To: grundle

According to the Bible, MAN and a WOMAN was created.
Not two MALES.
Not two FEMALES.

The Bible is backed by other non-Christian texts, as well.

A MALE AND A WOMAN.
An XY and XX.

The use of ‘homosexual’ was not a mistake.


11 posted on 11/07/2022 10:13:09 AM PST by cranked
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To: grundle

Homosexuality is mentioned many time in the bible. It is always condemned as being sinful and always has. For example,

“Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.” - Leviticus 18:22 (KJV) The King James Bible was published in 1611.


13 posted on 11/07/2022 10:14:08 AM PST by EastTexasTraveler
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To: grundle

B.S.

Complete and total gaslighting


14 posted on 11/07/2022 10:14:38 AM PST by Skywise
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To: grundle

That’s silly, the Bible spells it out in several different ways in many places. 1) Can’t get around the fact homosexualiy is an abomination. 2) Jesus paid the death sentence for all sin, for those that repent and put thier trust in him.


15 posted on 11/07/2022 10:14:53 AM PST by D Rider ( )
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To: grundle

Yes. Remember how accepting society was of that before 1946.


17 posted on 11/07/2022 10:16:45 AM PST by ifinnegan (Democrats kill babies and harvest their organs to sell)
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To: grundle

What about in Deuteronomy?


18 posted on 11/07/2022 10:17:14 AM PST by left that other site (Peacemakers who sow in peace reap a harvest of righteousness.)
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To: grundle
“In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.” Romans 1:27

It looks like more than one word was mistranslated.

19 posted on 11/07/2022 10:18:16 AM PST by Flag_This
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To: grundle

It has long been known that the concept of a “homosexual” as a distinct KIND of person is unknown to the Bible, and that the word is a relatively recent invention. But the Bible clearly rejects specific ACTIONS which are now associated with homosexuality, one of which is described as “lying with a man as with a woman,” and marriage is defined as involving male and female, not people of the same gender. The use of the term “homosexual” in the Bible is a kind of verbal shortcut intended to avoid ancient figures of speech describing prohibited sexual activity.


20 posted on 11/07/2022 10:19:25 AM PST by Steve_Seattle
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To: grundle

Thou shalt not lie with a man as with a woman. It is an abomination.

Which word was mistranslated?


24 posted on 11/07/2022 10:23:13 AM PST by 17th Miss Regt
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To: grundle

The word “homosexual” is in the Bible?........that’s news to me. 🤔


25 posted on 11/07/2022 10:23:57 AM PST by V_TWIN (America...so great even the people that hate it refuse to leave)
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To: grundle

adultery and fornication are 100% sins. PERIOD.

sodomy is not only a sin, but one of the first sins mentioned in the bible, thus why we refer to those who commit sodomy as sodomites. because they commit the same sin as those from Sodom.

If a man has sex with a married woman he commits the sin of adultery.

If a married man has sex with an un-married woman he commits the sin of fornification

If a unmarried or married man has sex with another man, he is also guilty of the sin of fornification, but it is labelled sodomy.


26 posted on 11/07/2022 10:24:25 AM PST by TexasFreeper2009
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To: grundle
This verse is pretty clear:

Leviticus 20:13 — The New King James Version (NKJV) 13 If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination.

27 posted on 11/07/2022 10:24:51 AM PST by Kazan
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To: grundle

The 1526 Tyndale translation: “For this cause God gave them up unto shameful lusts. For even their women did change the natural use unto the unnatural. And likewise also the men left the natural use of the woman, and brent in lust one on another among themselves. And man with man wrought filthiness, and received in themselves the reward of their error as it was according.”

Seems clear to me, but that was only 500 years ago...


32 posted on 11/07/2022 10:32:11 AM PST by Mr Rogers (We're a nation of feelings, not thoughts.)
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