it’s not in the KJV but it’s completely clear that homosexual behavior, which is described quite graphically, is an abomination.
This is just beyond absurd - the assertion this was not portrayed as a sin in the Bible nor taught as a sin prior to 1946 - it was something brand new that “shifted culture” after a mistranslation that year. That’s what these people want us to believe. And unfortunately, some will.
1611, I believe, came before 1946:
Romans 1:
24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;
29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,...
The term "homosexual" probably didn't exist in 1611, when the KJV was published. "Sodomite" would more likely have been the term that was used.
Leviticus 18:22
King James
22Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination
New Living Translation
22“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin.
So, they are technically right about the usage of the word “homosexual”, they are totally wrong about the Bible not proscribing homosexual practices.