thanks.
Nice stretch. It really doesn't apply.
How does a State of CT case definition that says
"The courts have jurisdiction of high crimes and misdemeanors at common law" bind the feds ?
At the Constitutional level, High Crimes and Misdemeanors are pretty much what the House says they are,(hence the 2 impeachments of Pres. Trump).
The Fed Courts have no jurisdiction here.
And your state definition is not specific but rather vague and broad....kind of proves my point
The definitions of Constitutional High Crimes and Misdemeanors have been debated from here to eternity with no real consensus.
Interesting read here:
https://www.theatlantic.com/ideas/archive/2019/10/what-does-high-crimes-and-misdemeanors-actually-mean/600343/ if you can find something concrete\specific, I'd be grateful.
Thanks again.