thanks.
Nice stretch. It really doesn't apply.
How does a State of CT case definition that says
"The courts have jurisdiction of high crimes and misdemeanors at common law" bind the feds ?
At the Constitutional level, High Crimes and Misdemeanors are pretty much what the House says they are,(hence the 2 impeachments of Pres. Trump).
The Fed Courts have no jurisdiction here.
And your state definition is not specific but rather vague and broad....kind of proves my point
The definitions of Constitutional High Crimes and Misdemeanors have been debated from here to eternity with no real consensus.
Interesting read here:
https://www.theatlantic.com/ideas/archive/2019/10/what-does-high-crimes-and-misdemeanors-actually-mean/600343/ if you can find something concrete\specific, I'd be grateful.
Thanks again.
Blackstone Chapt 9 lays out the definition the Founders used. It agrees with the definition I posted.
Such crimes matched up to the modern USC Title 18 would be literally everything from High Treason to simple assault.
You can continue to be needlessly pedantic... But it isn't going to make whatever point you think you are trying to make.