“Those who were exposed to SARS in 2003 have the antibodies against SARS COVID-19.”
A) No they don’t, it’s a different virus.
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It’s similar enough and it has been found to be true.
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B) There are 7,324 in the entire world who are known to have had and survived SARS 2003. That’s 0.0000977% of the world’s population. It doesn’t help the other 99.99991% even if it were true. And it isn’t.
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Wrong, it is true but you are right the number of people who had original SARS or Mers is not enough to affect the transmission in the general populace.
But again, you are wrong and spreading false information.
No, it really hasn't. Measuring some cross-reactivity in T-cells in a laboratory petri dish is a far cry from demonstrating immunity to infection in the real world. Show me a challenge study with SARS-CoV-2. Or an epidemiological study with all 7,324 SARS2003 survivors.
As for the rest, you're admitting I'm right and then saying I'm wrong anyway? What kind of nonsense is this?
To add another layer of correction. Sars 1 infected don’t have antibodies 17 years later/ They have memory T-Cells with record of the virus.
That provides a more uncertain level of protection. By analogy antibodies are cops on the street actively hunting for a perp. Memory T-Cells is a wanted poster on a billboard at the police station.
The most likely scenario is that T-Cells prevent the infection getting severe. You might still get infected again, but it won’t become more than a mild cold.