Not necessarily. I don’t know all the legal mechanisms, but it apparently can be done.
https://www.justia.com/criminal/docs/rico/
Not necessarily. I don’t know all the legal mechanisms, but it apparently can be done.
Agree.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/1964
Subsection (c)
(c) Any person injured in his business or property by reason of a violation of section 1962 of this chapter may sue therefor in any appropriate United States district court and shall recover threefold the damages he sustains and the cost of the suit, including a reasonable attorney’s fee, except that no person may rely upon any conduct that would have been actionable as fraud in the purchase or sale of securities to establish a violation of section 1962. The exception contained in the preceding sentence does not apply to an action against any person that is criminally convicted in connection with the fraud, in which case the statute of limitations shall start to run on the date on which the conviction becomes final.
She’d have to prove personal harm. That would be extremely tough given the TX non-ruling. What citizen is she a state of? If not GA, MI, WI, or PA, would be tough to show actual damages. Even then, the damages are to your “civil rights” in one man, one vote. This is a very tough case to make in general, let alone in RICO.