You can’t “disenfranchise” someone who never voted.
Yes. Addressing election fraud is not disenfranchising anyone, the opposite in fact.
That is a critical point.
Many of the "disenfranchised millions" don't exist and the rest voted for the candidate that lost.
I.e., not a single Dem was disenfranchised...but all R's who actually outnumbered the Dem voters were the victim of fraud.