[Basket_of_Deplorables]

I’ve always wondered how his name was actually pronounced, as Aramaic speakers. Doubt it was “Gee-zus.” In spanish speaking countries, it’s “Hey-zeus.”

[wbarmy]

From everything I have ever read, I think it was Jeshua, pronounce jeh’-shoe-ah,

[Azeem]

“I’ve always wondered how his name was actually pronounced, as Aramaic speakers. Doubt it was “Gee-zus.” In spanish speaking countries, it’s “Hey-zeus.””

According to: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yeshua the Aramaic name is Isho. That would make sense because I’ve seen it written in Arabic as Issa and Yeswa, probably following the Aramaic and Hebrew name.

[SkyDancer]

His name is Yeshua.

[huckfillary]

His name in his native land was YESHUA.

[conservatism_IS_compassion]

I’ve always wondered how his name was actually pronounced, as Aramaic speakers. Doubt it was “Gee-zus.” In spanish speaking countries, it’s “Hey-zeus.”

I’ve heard it asserted that “Jesus” is a Latin version of “Joshua.” But then, “Joshua” is, in my understanding, not Hebrew or Aramaic either - it’s anglicized.

The fundamental point is that nobody was running around with tape recorders documenting how any language was pronounced two millennia ago. And just consider how impenetrable Chaucer English is to modern Americans, and you have to know that the pronunciation of any word 2000 years ago would, if heard today, have approximately zero chance of being understood by a modern.

[imardmd1]

in German also, I believe; probably in Swedish and norwegisn as well.

For some reason, whoever or however the alphabet selected to represent the sounds English people now use was emergent, the letter "J" was assigned to the sound which is, in other letters of the English, pronounced as "dzhay"; then "Jerusalem" could be lo sounded like "dzheh-roos-sah-lehm."

But Strong's Concordance Dictionary of Hebrew words says (using English alphabet sounds) that it is "yer-oo-shaw-lah'-im," or "yer-oo-shaw-lah'-yim"; but in Aramaic it sounded as "yer-oo-shaw-lame' (the apostraphes representing the accent)." Aramaic (Daniel chapters 2 thru 9, written for and dealing with Gentiles) was a little different than the Hebrew sounding.

Goin into the New Tstament, when this was transliterated into Greek, it sounds like "hee-er-os-ol'-oo-mah," in Greek letters being spelled as a proper noun "Ἱεροσόλυμα" with the I infected with the apotrophe as the "rough breathing" aspiration, making what would be in our lanuage the "h" sound, which is simply an aspirant sound beginning a word.

But none of these used the "dzh" sound that the Engs have decided the way they are going to pronounce the word, whether this is acceptable to Jews, Aramites, and Greeks--or not.

For what it's worth.

[Doulos1]

Jesus’s name (which is Greek), would be translated Joshua
(which would be Hebrew/Aramaic equivalent). Heb 4:8 and
Acts 7:45 show that when the translators came to the name
of Joshua from the O.T. they used the translation Jesus.