I was wondering whether the verbal instructions were verbal for a reason(possibly expanded beyond the written) and while the parties were in agreement, one or the other might want to disavow the verbal instructions when/if brought out in the open.
As to whether Mueller’s jurisdiction is defined only by what is in writing, or could legally be expanded verbally, I didn’t have a clue. I did think that it would make sense to follow the same rule as Contract Law though.
It seems that the answer is not a yes or no, but it depends. Thanks for the explanations.
When people communicate verbally one side often hears only what they want to hear. It is the reason written agreements are so important. Muellers side could have been talking out of their rear and when RR didn’t extremely strongly draw a line assumed they had a go ahead for their own plan not the plan of this admenistration Again otoh RR could have been setting them up the bomb. BOOM.