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To: Bob Celeste

Some thoughts:

1) There is a Greek word — porneia in the New Testament. The word translated “fornication” has the same idea in both the Hebrew and the Greek.

From the word, porneia, we get the English words porno and pornography. The word in Scripture refers to any illicit sexual activity, and this would have to include the abhorrent acts of a pedophile—including the gathering and trading of obscene or indecent pictures of young children. People who use this type of pornography usually graduate from looking to actually doing, bringing great harm to children. Fornication is among the “lusts of the flesh” (Galatians 5:16–21).

2) Pedophiles share the characteristic of being “without natural affection” (Romans 1:31; 2 Timothy 3:2). The phrase “without natural affection”.

One without natural affection acts in ways that are against the social norm. This would certainly describe a pedophile.

3) There is alsoa principle found in Jesus’ words about children. Jesus used a child to teach His disciples that childlike faith is necessary for entrance into the kingdom of heaven. At the same time, He said that the Father has concern for all of His “little ones” (Matthew 18:1–14). In that passage, Jesus says, “But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea” (Matthew 18:6).

The word “offend” in the Greek means “to cause one to stumble, to put a stumbling block or impediment in the way, upon which another may trip and fall, to entice to sin, or to cause a person to begin to distrust and desert one whom he ought to trust and obey.”

These definitions of the word offend can easily be applied to the actions of a pedophile. Of course, the principle of not harming a child can be applied to a wide range of child-abusive actions, and Matthew 18:10 makes the case against anyone who would bring any type of harm to a child.

Now here’s my question — is there a relationship between pedophilia and homosexuality?

Can one be a homosexual and yet, not be a pedophile?

Can one be a pedophile and yet, not be a homosexual?


6 posted on 03/05/2018 7:20:31 AM PST by SeekAndFind
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To: SeekAndFind
...“without natural affection”...

Before PC ran rampant, homosexuals were afflicted with Same Sex Affection Disorder. Unnatural to say the least. Now it's just an "alternative lifestyle".

8 posted on 03/05/2018 7:53:53 AM PST by JimRed ( TERM LIMITS, NOW! Build the Wall Faster! TRUTH is the new HATE SPEECH.)
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To: SeekAndFind
Can one be a pedophile and yet, not be a homosexual?

Yes. Witness the assaults upon little girls by males who prefer them.

9 posted on 03/05/2018 7:56:07 AM PST by JimRed ( TERM LIMITS, NOW! Build the Wall Faster! TRUTH is the new HATE SPEECH.)
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To: SeekAndFind

I appreciate your words and Scripture, but cannot answer without tipping what I have to say if Sessions continues to ignore the child raping scum in g0vt.

Thank you.


15 posted on 03/05/2018 8:30:04 AM PST by Bob Celeste
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To: SeekAndFind
Can one be a homosexual and yet, not be a pedophile? Can one be a pedophile and yet, not be a homosexual?

Possibly but no question, the overlap is huge. Romans 1 does imply that homosexuality is the sin of already deviant people. It is a progressive sin on the way to greater and greater depravity. How could anything different be expected when God has turned them over to their sin nature?

18 posted on 03/05/2018 8:36:37 AM PST by CommerceComet (Hillary: A unique blend of arrogance, incompetence, and corruption.)
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