But the 2003 article does discuss anti-abortion violence in the context of “domestic insurrection.” I offer, without proof, that anti-abortion violence was not what Jefferson meant by the term “domestic violence.” And Jefferson was not referencing the Detroit Sitdown Strike of 1936 either.
Sadly, I predicted just such a result in my humorous post 325 when I invited a search of the internet. Read again, for the first time, what I wrote:
“Yes, I know that recommending an internet search is dangerous. And, yes, I will wager the value of a medium-priced homosexual cupcake that you will find a college student, or maybe a professor, that will claim the term domestic insurrection refers to the practice of women burning braziers. But that is not factual.”
Again, please post any sources you have that support your claim that Jefferson's reference to “domestic insurrection” in the DOI refers to loyalists or Indians.
Nor, just as obviously, did Jefferson refer to non-existent slave revolts.
My entire argument is that Jefferson must be referencing events actually happening in 1776, such as loyalists "domestic violence" against local patriot governments, but not referencing non-existent slave revolts.
And this is hard for you to accept because?